Originally Posted by Tallest Skil
I asked before and never got a response: why does that have to be the case?
Because - your argument is that a judge of Korean descent can not judge fairly in a case involving a Korean company.
If your statement is correct, by exactly the same logic, a judge of American descent can not judge fairly in a case involving an American company.
So in order to get a fair trial, you'd have to bring in non-American judges. And since the number of American judges can barely keep up with the caseload, it is not plausible that there will be enough foreign judges who are familiar with our laws. Furthermore, there is no mechanism for hiring foreign judges to try cases involving American companies in American courts. For that matter, it might even be unconstitutional.
In any event, your argument that someone who has one or more Korean ancestors can not be impartial in a case involving a Korean company is bogus, It has no legal precedent and just doesn't make sense in light of the above.