The article states that Apple has 'already agreed to some of the proposed remedies'. That does not seem to make sense. Why would Apple 'agree' to anything since they are going to file at the Appeals court?
Because you routinely work through the process AS IF it's valid even when you're filing an appeal. Then, if the appeal is rejected, you have already done everything you can to minimize the impact of the original court's decision.
AFAIK, Apple has ALREADY filed the appeal. No hearing date has been set, though.
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Because you routinely work through the process AS IF it's valid even when you're filing an appeal. Then, if the appeal is rejected, you have already done everything you can to minimize the impact of the original court's decision.
AFAIK, Apple has ALREADY filed the appeal. No hearing date has been set, though.
An Apple spokesperson supposedly said Apple will be appealing this, but I don't find any notice yet that Apple has actually done so.